I've got longstanding hearing loss in my left ear, which I have had since the age of 12. It was caused by a flu virus. I am now 47 and have some high tone loss in my right ear - my better ear. It seems to be mild at the moment and the loss lies between the 25 to 40 db mark. However, because of my existing problems, I really notice it. The tinnitus also doesn't help.
I have seen an ENT and audiologist who seem to think it is age related, which surprises me. Obviously, I am aware that I am no spring chicken but I hadn't expected to suffer just yet. So, really, my question is, is this normal and to be expected at my age? Or have the problems in my left ear accelerated the hearing loss in my right? Or could there be another cause, such as Menieres?
I have been referred for a scan but they suggest something like an acoustic neuroma is highly unlikely as I had 2 MRIs 3 years ago for disc degeneration in my cervical spine and nothing of this nature was detected then. I did ask if the tinnitus and hearing loss could be related to my disc problems but they didn't think so.
I am also on Fluoxetine 20mg and have been since Xmas. Would that affect my hearing at all? My GP didn't seem to think so either.
I have been referred for an NHS hearing aid though they did say my left ear couldn't be corrected because it's been left too long. The loss is also quite severe, with certain pitches being as low as 80db (around the 2000 -
4000 Hz mark). The other pitches aren't too bad - 30 - 40 - 50 Hz. Boots seem to think it is correctable, though, as does hearingdirect.com. Who is correct?