Just before Christmas I developed a burny pain in my pelvic area after I'd been to the toilet and when I was dehydrated. It was uncomfortable so I used pain killers and hot water bottles and drank only water. I didn't go to the GP because I didn't have increased frequency of urination and it didn't hurt when I was actually urinating so didn't think it could be a urine infection.
Last Friday I finally visited the GP just in case and it turns out I had a major urine infection. 😳 Was prescribed 200mg of Trimethoprim twice a day for five days. I'd had nausea for about three days before I went and that disappeared very quickly once I started the antibiotics (though I hadn't linked them before) and the burny pain subsided considerably. Problem solved I thought.
The day I finished the antibiotics (so was still taking them) I felt the burny pain return - though not as bad - and the nausea returned too. The day after that I developed lower right back pain with occasional twinges on the left.
I returned to the GP today thinking I just needed more antibiotics but he said it should have cleared up so wouldn't prescribe any further antibiotics and he didn't need to dip my urine - though he has sent it away to be analysed. I asked if the infection could have travelled to my kidneys and he replied that urine and kidney infections are the same thing so I don't need to be any more concerned about kidney infections than urine infections because if I have a urine infection I already have a kidney infection.
And that is what I want to ask you all about. Is he right?! Are they the same?!