I've been pondering this all evening, and I can't quite work out what I think is correct and it might indeed be ridiculous, but:
If a woman is born with a set number of eggs, and each time she ovulates an egg is released in each menstrual cycle that number would decrease. If for whatever reason, ie contraceptive pill, a woman didn't ovulate then an egg wouldn't be released so the egg count wouldn't go down.
Would this have any effect on fertility, or is the number of eggs that are kept as a result of not ovulating be so small as opposed to the total number of eggs that any effect would be negligible?
Does this even make sense? Anyone know?