i have just had an abnormal smear test in which i was told i had the high risk strain of the hpv virus, a sexually transmitted virus which they claim i could have contracted any time since i lost my virginity over 20 years ago. however i have been married for 8 years and slept with no-one but my husband in those 8 years, is it really more likely that i would have got this virus more recently than over the last 20 years? i have smear tests every 3 years and have always been clear, but they have only just started testing for hpv, so who knows how long its been hanging around - obviously they don't want women suspecting their husbands of having affairs, but its really hard not to suspect something given that he's been my only lover for 10 years!, does anyone have an opinion or more info on this?