My DS and a few of his baby friends have recently had 'viral rashes' with all the symptoms of rubella and one had a 'mumps like infection'
With all due respect to the fact that CRS has been reduced by the vaccination programme, I don't like being fobbed off and given information that makes no sense by my GP.
Firstly I was told rubella is extremely rare so DS was unlikely to have it. In the same breath she added that it often has very few symptoms in children and that people often don't know they've had it. She examined DS and said it didn't look florid enough for a rubella rash and then later said it was impossible to diagnose from the rash as it comes up differently in different cases.
When I politely questioned the logic of some of these statements she finally admitted that rubella could well be much more prevalent than reported. So DS's case of what I'm fairly sure would have been diagnosed as rubella before MMR was introduced, is now recorded as 'non specific viral rash. This way I suppose it is hoped I won't question DS's immune status when he's old enough for MMR, and the stats for vaccine efficiency can continue to 'show' that the vaccination programme has made rubella 'very rare'.
My question is, on this basis how can we as parents trust any statistics we are given about vaccine efficiency, and why should we all give our DCs MMR when immune status tests would very possibly show many of them to be already immune to one or two of its components? I suppose it's cheaper to do it this way?
This isn't particularly a pro or anti vaccine rant, but more about public health information, reporting of notifiable diseases and the distinct feeling that I have been fobbed off with half truths and propaganda. As I left the surgery the doctor was mumbling something about him 'still having his MMR when he was 1 anyway'
Is there an NHS policy not to diagnose mumps and rubella these days? Has anyone actually had a diagnosis or a reported case?