I know even the title makes me .
Anyhow, 8 (nearly 9) yrs ago dh had the snip. As soon as he had had it done, he stopped getting (ill use the medical term as its mildly better) smegma. So he hasnt had it all this time. Therefore we assume that it's the actual sperm in the semen that produces this revoltingness. BUT .. Now he notices it has come back. Therefore does that mean his body is releasing sperm again and that his vascetomy has now failed?? I've googled like mad and there is lots of anecdotal 'evidence' that vasectomies can heal themselves after 7/8 yrs. please please does anyone know?? Thank you and sorry for the tmi!