hypothetical scenario...
Charles looks after his wife Maureen at home. Her care needs, if he can't look after her, require nursing care. Social services have confirmed that they would fund any nursing home and that Charles would pay £80 p/w top up for a local authority room in the lovely nursing home where she has previously had respite.
Charles can no longer look after Maureen at home and she goes into the home. He pays £800 a week top up for a nicer room than the one provided by local authority but soon runs out of savings. He decides he no longer wants to stay in the family home and sells it so he can fund the top up and moves into a flat.
wouldnt Maureen become self funding in this scenario ? I would have thought that Charles would be expected to use Maureen's half of the property to pay for her care. Can Charles use the entire money from the sale to buy an extremely nice flat in a very nice position where he would very much like to live ? Or can he only use his half ?
can anyone advise.