Hi All
Following the breakdown of his first marriage to our mother, my father bought a flat in Kent for cash in 1999. He married his second wife in 2002 and moved up North to live in the house his wife owns with no mortgage. My Dad suffered a major stroke in 2008 from which he has never recovered. In 2009, his second wife became joint owner of his flat.
The second wife is the sole attorney for his financial LPA and my brother and I (children from his first marriage) are the two attorneys for health and welfare (as well as replacement attorneys for financial LPA). Both were registered in 2011. The wife's daughter has lived in the flat for 8 years and I only recently discovered that, while she has paid service charges and ground rent along with some redecoration costs and some extra communal charges for reglazing windows, a new lift etc, she has not been paying any rent. I believe that she should have been paying at least market rate rent for his half of the flat. His wife recently moved him into a cheaper care home because he can't afford the costs of the one he has lived in (all while her daughter is living in a lovely 2 bed, 2 bath flat. The wife admitted recently that "any additional income from letting the flat at market rate would be relatively insignificant" and refuses to discuss the matter with me any further. Will the OPG take this seriously? Has anyone a similar story to tell? Many thanks