DH and i met at uni and are still close to a guy who we flat-shared with while studying...20 years ago.
Lets call him Fred. Fred was married for 15 years, no children and instigated a no fault divorce with his wife 2 years ago which is now final. While divorce proceedings were ongoing Fred said he felt uncomfortable in the family home as his wife was controlling and agressive and so DH and I occasionally had him stay with us as did other friends. No judgement or overload of sympathy as i know his wife may well have a different take on things. We didnt charge him for sleeping on our sofa although during a couple of longer stays he did chip in with a donation to food shopping.
During his divorce we all went as a group with other friends to one festival and also a holiday. I arranged and paid for both then my friends paid their respective shares to me by bank transfer.
I recently had cause to look at an old bank statement online and noticed that next to both payments Fred had given a reference..he'd put 'rent'. I was firstly worried we'd get in trouble for not declaring rental income wed never charged...so i tracked down the receipts for both trips, emails etc and they clearly indicate he was repaying his share...this set my mind at rest until i slowly realised that during his divorce he may have wanted to create a paper trail to show his outgoings / commitments were greater than they were.
Am i being paranoid and if not, what should i do? Their house was split 50/50 and finances were not conplicated..as far as i understand it hes not ripped his wife off in any way.. and as mentioned, no children.