I have quite a niche question, hoping for some views/advice on risks and practicalities.
exH and I own two properties under one mortgage. One is former marital home, the other is a property bought for him to move out into. ExH is on mortgage, I am not. I pay half.
Divorce process and agreement means I retain former marital home, he retains property two. The Consent Order defines this as a transfer (permissible as it’s as the result of a divorce).
I need a mortgage to cover an element of the transfer. Brokers and conveyancers are defining this as a sale and purchase. This isn’t strictly correct, but they don’t appear to have another option for ‘transfer when one party isn’t on the mortgage’.
exH has suggested that I get added to (his) mortgage and then it is simply transferred that way I.e. he removes himself from the mortgage.
on one hand, this makes sense. No conveyancing (I was involved in the purchase) etc. so reduces both timescales and costs.
But, what are the risks? ExH is not a person I trust, and he takes risks financially. So, I need to fully understand pros and cons.
obviously broker and conveyancers aren’t interested in advising on this as it’s outside their remit. And not sure who else could give me a clear picture of the pros and cons.
any insight or experience welcome!