Looking for advice please based on the below.
Married 14 years. One DD age 15. Together for 17 years. Prior to marriage husband had own mortgage for 2 years. I contributed when I moved in. Had DD. Married 3 years later. Bought house together 6 years ago and my name is on mortgage/deeds.
My question is on divorce in terms of splitting of finances because we only jointly owned a property 6 years ago will I only be entitled to the share of this?
The property my husband owed 2 years before we met was solely in his name even when we Married.
I have had a look at Wikivorce and it reads as though anything owed before marriage i will not get a share of which means the home even when we married.
I am going to seek legal advice but in the interim can anyone help?