Sorry if it’s a stupid question but I’m so confused.
Amicable (so far) divorce. Long marriage. No children, very little in the way of pensions/savings.
Main asset is the flat, owned outright. Worth £500k now but at the time asking price was £300k, bought by me before we married with a £150k deposit that I got from my parents. I paid the mortgage almost by myself, he put in only £30k that he got from a pre-wedding inheritance.
Would it be seen as reasonable to take 150+30 (pre-marital money)=180 out of the value to split in half?
So 500-180=320/2=we both end up with 160?
Input from family law solicitors/mediators would be very welcome. Thank you.