Am I correct in thinking that the courts aim to have divorcing couples at roughly the same income after divorce and this can be achieved by adjusting the assets split accordingly. My stbxh who is retired says he needs 500k to generate a 20k income (one that goes up with inflation)
I earn 36k and have about 17 years left to work
He wants 800k (500k to generate income and 300k to buy a house ) this will leave me with about 400k
If we do this he will have about 32k income if you include the state pension
I am fairly happy with this as he has always taken care of me financially and I've never had to worry about paying bills but just wondering what the courts would say
We have done mediation and solicitors but don't want to use them any more