Hi All
Looking for some advice from all you wise Mumsnetter's.
I was married for 18 years, my ex is a high earner. We have two adult children, one of whom lives with me.
Although I worked full time until I became pregnant, I don't have a company pension (Back in the days when you could cash in a pension if you left the company). I returned to work part time/temp. contracts as I was supporting my ex with his career. He always told me not to worry about my lack of pension as he was earning enough to cover us both (I know - stupid).
Anyway, for my divorce settlement, I agreed not to touch his pension if I could have the family home. There is an outstanding mortgage which is due up in 7 years. It was agreed that he pays 80% of the monthly mortgage and I pay 20%. This is for the term of the mortgage unless there is a significant change in his financial circumstances. It is also my sole decision when to sell the house and he receives a percentage of any profit over an agreed figure.
Roll on six years. He is remarried with a young child and has moved abroad.
Him and his wife bought a large house which needed a lot of work. His wife is a SAHM, his son attends private international school and although he has a company car, he leases a BMW for his wife. I know all of this is none of my business, but is relevant.
He contacted me a couple of weeks ago and asked when I was thinking of selling the house. Turns out he has had a few large 'Tax Bills' and money is tight. I told him I had no intention of selling at the moment as the house is effectively my pension. He then asked me to change the mortgage to an interest only option so that the monthly payments would reduce.
For context, I am ND and a bit of a people pleaser. My daughter is telling me to ignore him completely and my friend says I should tell him I have to seek legal advice. I am avoiding his messages at the moment, but he is asking me for a chat to sort things out. I am worried he just stops paying his part of the mortgage.