Hi All,
I’m writing on behalf of a friend and hoping that someone may be able to assist. I think I’m really just looking to sense check what our current understanding of the issue at hand is. I’ll preface this by saying that my friend has sought some legal advice and been advised on the basis of the information disclosed that a meeting with a solicitor for a few hours to fully discuss what the solicitor described as a “very straightforward” matter would be helpful and that doing so will cost approx £1.5 k (£500 per hour plus VAT). Whilst my friend does appreciate the need to obtain sound legal advice, as does my friend, if it is not absolutely necessary, and this matter is straightforward and there’s a risk that the solicitor will only confirm what my pal already knows-the preference would be not to spend that amount. The situation is as follows:
A and B ( and un unmarried couple) purchased a property together for £283,000 in 2018. There are no children.
A and B did not contribute equally to the deposit, A spent more.
Both A and B were in full term employment, throughout the course of the relationship A paid the mortgage and bills, B did not.
A and B are no longer together, A has continued to pay the mortgage in its entirety, despite no longer residing in the home. B remains in the home and pays the bills. A informed B a year after having left that this was not sustainable and so for the last 3 months B has contributed £400 to the mortgage which is approx £1200.
As far as I understand, with a joint tenancy and in the absence of specific steps to protect their financial interests-both parties own 50% each and are equally entitled to 50% of the equity in the home. It is irrelevant who paid the mortgage etc whilst they were a couple in this case. Furthermore, each remains joint and severally liable and the fact that A paid all of the bills and mortgage payments whilst in the relationship has no baring on what they are entitled to moving forward.
B has said that they will not, under any circumstances leave the property. B is looking to remortgage and has offered A £20k. 3 valuations of the property that B had done in April say that it should be marketed at £310,000, £315,000 and £320,000. The remortgage is based on the value of the property being £320,000. According to an online search, the average price of property in the postcode over the last year is £313,000.
B says that all of the agents valuing the property said that as it has issues, it is likely to sell for £10-15k less than the valuations. And that they have no way of raising more than £20k.
On the basis that the lowest valuation of £310,000 is accurate, that minus the remaining mortgage of £234,000 means that there is £76,000 of equity in the property-so each A and B are entitled to £38k.
A is unsure of how to proceed. £38k is almost double the amount being offered. B has previously refused to engage with a mediator. A cannot afford to continue to pay the mortgage and rent on another property, B will not leave the home. A does not want to take the matter to court if it is avoidable and would like for B to remain in the home if that is a possibility but does not feel £20k is a fair settlement. I think A would agree to around £30k but B says this is impossible.
Can anyone provide any guidance or advice? It would be greatly appreciated.