hoping for some perspectives as struggling to get a clear answer on this.
me and DC live in the family home
stbxh lives in a property he purchased. He would only move out on breakdown of marriage to an owned property, refused to rent.
both properties and mortgages in his name. Effectively on large mortgage with sub accounts, smaller amount on FMH and larger on his new place.
For 18 months, whilst going through mediation, he has paid CM at what would be the calculated rate and I have paid him 50% of the mortgage for the property in which I live - FMH. Informal agreement. I have paid all bills, insurance, repairs on FMH in that time.
he has now stopped paying CM. I have stopped paying him 50% of the FMH mortgage in response.
he says I now need to pay 50% of both mortgages as they are shared assets.
if I go to the CMS, which (if any) mortgages will they deduct from his calculation? The help page says none, because he retains a legal and beneficial interest in the former family home until financial separation is finalised. Is this correct in practice?
and is there any way I ‘should’ be paying 50% of the mortgage on his place too?
I’m going in circles on this.
Solicitor dealing with overall separation isn’t best placed to deal with the CM question. I need to make sure I don’t score an own goal.