Ok so a friend of mine separated from her husband 2 years ago, but they still haven't done any financial split or completed the divorce process.
The only financial change they have made is she has moved out and to provide her with a home the family home was remortgaged and she now owns a flat which has a mortgage too.
They have been seeing solicitors for years and come to no agreement, and are starting mediation but as they don't agree with each other i think it will end up at court.
So my question is (and i know you will also tell me to tell her to ask a solicitor) but opinions or knowledge please - if it goes to court, will the decision be based on their current financial situation? Using both properties? Or will the flat purchase be considered as something thats been sorted as a way to share equity?
Hope that makes sense