Hi - was hoping you could help with a query.
STBXH left the matrimonial home over 3 years ago and has been renting the same 3 bed house ever since. He has our 2 kids there every other weekend and 50% of school hols. Despite renting it, my ex has decorated/furnished the house to make a nice home for the kids during their time at his.
As he has been ‘adequately housed’ for over 3yrs, will this have an impact on our financial agreement? We’re due to start mediation for finances in March. My ex earns significantly more than I do (£20,000+) and has significantly more savings.
I live in the matrimonial house with the kids (pay the full mortgage - he pays child maintenance). The value of the house has risen astronomically since we bought it 10yrs ago (nearly £200,000) because it’s in an ‘up and coming’ area. Having to buy him out of 50% of the house is doable with help from family and an extended mortgage but the additional mortgage payments will leave me extremely tight each month. Even a 40/60 split of the house value in my favour will be painful.
Would I be able to get something like a 25/75 split in my favour when the circumstances provided above are taken into consideration? He doesn’t ‘need’ the money from
the house - he’s adequately housed and has significantly more money than me. If he wants to buy, he’s got the savings to make a big deposit and a salary to get a big mortgage - he’ll have no trouble buying a 3 bed house and he already has his own furniture (his rented house came unfurnished - he’s furnished the house himself).
Thanks