Splitting Possessions

[Magmum75]

I'm just wondering (and can't find the answer elsewhere) at what point things purchased become the ownership of the individual rather than marital goods.

If for example when separating one partner buys items to furnish their new home - can they consider them theirs? If the other party is still in the marital home and needs to replace anything does that still count as marital goods?

I'm a little late to this one but see if this might help - https://iamlip.com/help-guides/the-court-process-of-dividing-your-marital-assets-finances-and-pensions/ I'm not sure if after separating they still count as shared but there is a chance that it does count. I think it also depends if combined marital finances were used to purchase the items (like if it hasn't been split yet). Hope this helps with the process though!

Yes! I used this and it’s really helpful.