So ex is saying that I have to pay 50% of his credit card debt because it was spent on the house before we split. He used the CC to buy things, I had no say.
I have read that any household debt, even if personal debt, is considered a joint liability.
Where do you draw the line though? For example, he also used his credit card to buy thousands of pounds of “collectibles” which he sold after the split and kept the money.
We were half way though a renovation when he left so I’ve had to spent thousands trying to fix essential things for building control. He won’t contribute. I put on a credit card but have worked lots of extra hours, stuck to a super strict budget etc and have paid it off.
We will sell the family home but my sole earning capacity is not that great - although I work nearly full time in a well paid job, I think having 4 dependents, childcare costs etc go against the affordability of the mortgage. He has subsequently left a high earning job and not intending to get another one. Wants to set up own business. Since the split, he has received a bonus and pay-off from work.
Even if I got 100% equity and he kept 100% of his vast pension (I have minimal) we would struggle to be able to afford a home for the 5 of us. It’s so expensive here but kids are all in school etc so moving doesn’t seem an option. With 100% equity, we can maybe afford a 2 or if lucky, 3 bedroom place, kids sharing and I’ll take the box room.
But now he also wants to deduct this credit card debt from the joint pot….. ☹️
Any thoughts? Sorry for the long post.