I was in a situation with some similarities when I divorced exH. He was abusive for years, so I have very little sympathy for him anyway, but he tried to force me to accept a very low offer to buy me out of the marital home, so he could afford to move the other woman and her kids in. He got very nasty. His parents had gifted him shares in the family business several years before, after we were married. It was done entirely for them to avoid tax, but also meant that I was no longer eligible for support whilst studying, so had a negative impact for me at the time.
When we split, exH tried to argue that the shares weren't a joint asset, our solicitors disagreed, and they were taken into consideration when splitting the rest of the assets. This meant that I actually had enough to buy a new home for my DDs and I (with a mortgage).
I did make it clear that I had no intention to force sale of the shares, or to try to take ownership of them, just that I wanted ex to pay me a fair amount for my share in our house, which he did in the end. He got to keep the shares, the house, his pension, the bigger car. I got enough money to be able to buy a much smaller house (with a mortgage). He will have a future income from those shares to add to his retirement pot, whilst I was the only one negatively impacted by them being put in his name.
If people want to say that I was grabby because I insisted on being able to afford suitable housing for my DDs and I, that's fine with me. That's your opinion, and we don't have to agree.
OP, I suggest that you speak to your solicitor about this. The house being in Germany may or may not affect things. Your husband is set to benefit from owning that house at some point in the future, just as either of you would from a pension, or other investments. You can ask for it to be considered without it affecting his parents.