If one party is gong to stay in the marital home, how do you value it?
Do you take the average of the valuations, and even if the house won’t be sold, do you deduct the selling costs?
Eg. Estate agent A £550, 000 to £600, 000 Written, but verbally said use lower price to get interest going, pretty sure to get £600,000.
Estate Agent B £600,000 to £650,000. Written, but verbally said could even get £675,000.
My husband wants to stay in the marital home and wants to use the £550,000 figure. He says this is to account for the selling costs. But it won’t be sold, so is he right to use this figure. I wanted to use £600,000.
Has anyone one gone through this procedure and can tell me how it’s done. We will be using solicitors, but he is very keen to get an “amicable” agreement.