Hi
just seeking opinion on my DP's CBO from the ex wife. She is demanding that once the house is signed over to him (for a considerable sum in her favour) that she is legally entitled to remain in the FMH for as along as she wishes. 2nd that he sends the lump sum before she has signed the TR1. And 3rd she be removed from the mortgage before she has signed over her share of the house. Also if he does not give her the lump sum in a certain time the house will be put on the open market and sold essentially making him and the 3 children homeless. Is this normal in a CBO?
looking for some other perspectives as i think this is a tad unreasonable? TIA