Before I met my husband, I bought a flat which I lived in. At no time was this our marital home. After we got married, I rented it out and I have been solely responsible for covering mortgage payments, maintenance charges, ground rent etc. it is still rented out and any income comes to me, although because I was in negative equity for a while, I haven’t really made much money from
the rent.
14 years later, we are now getting divorced. Husband wants 50% of our current family home (house). Today I suggested this might not be the case as the kids will be living with me so I might get more. He sort of implied he’s doing me a favour by not asking for any of the flat.
I thought he wasn’t entitled to any of that anyway as it’s mine, he’s never lived there nor been responsible for any of its costs.
who is right?