Hi
I'm hoping to feed off your personal experiences to help my girlfriend. She met her husband in 2001. Married in 2003. Separated 2918. Going through court system with divorce currently. They have 4 kids together aged 9-15. They have a marital home that he hasn't paid the mortgage on now for 3.5 years. He owns a 50% share in an inherited home that he acquired 8 years ago. His sister owns the other half. It cannot be sold until his aunt and uncle pass on. They are both in their 70's. He is saying that house is his and it's not part of the divorce and that he wants the marital home sold and equity split 50/50. She says both homes count and he should keep the inherited property and she the family home. Neither party can get another mortgage due to serious credit issues including almost having the family home repossessed. He lives with his new partner in a new build council house with her kids. If they sell. His money will sit in his pocket. Hers can not buy a home or offer enough deposit for a mortgage. With the kids being priority and needing them to stay in local area it means any sale leaves her only able to rent. At £2000 a month average in this area she would blow through her money on rent by the time the youngest was 15. Leaving her broke and no future whilst he would have taken £150k from the equity plus have another £200k to come. He sees kids once a fortnight if he can be bothered but usually cancels roughly 33% of visits. She pays for all the mortgage and mortgage debt. She had to force him through CNS to pay maintenance. All she wants is the home that her kids can live in and will be hers once they are 18. He turned down an offer of him keeping his inheritance and taking £80k once kids are 18. Even though this allows him on current equity a 53/47 split in his favour. He has lawyers. We do not and will not be able to get any money to hire one. Mediation failed and we have an adjourned first hearing in late March. Does anyone know if it is likely that after such a long relationship that both homes will be taken into account either by her having a direct entitlement or by it being considered as providing for his means. Or will they say it is only based on the marital home and nothing else? If he gets what he wants it leaves him basically with £350k and her nothing.