Costs of sale-how does it work?

[FlowerandBloom]

I am currently selling the FMH which I am residing in. In the consent order I have 3% costs of sale. Does that mean that even if it costs less than 3% to sell then I will have the rest? We have agreed a 60:40 split of the equity. Or is the remainder split evenly between us? Has anyone got any step by step advice on how I do this? House is worth approx 575k and is in the SE. Thanks all

No, that’s not how it normally works.

All costs are usually deducted from the monies - minus the mortgage, then distributed (in your case 60:40 split) between you.