Ok, like may of us, I imagine I never thought I'd be posting on this board. Complex situation, in that for various reasons I have been the main breadwinner in our marriage, but DH has inherited or been gifted a very substantial amount of money in the course of our marriage - around 500 - 700 k maybe. Some of this he has invested in rental property , a great deal has been spent over the last 10 or so years on ongoing legal action against a public body.
My question is what claim do I have on these properties, if they were purchased during the marriage with inherited money (which incidentally for various reasons was initially paid into my account or joint account) even though I do not appear on the mortgages? These properties are in the UK, we were married and lived in the UK, although we no longer live there. He want to sell to fund ongoing legal cases. We have one dependent DD. He doesn't work or contribute to any general living expenses (God I sound like a mug). What can he do with / without my agreement?