Whilst discussing my future divorce here, and options to manage financially, it was mentioned several times that I and stbx should probably best sell the marital home, and that I should rent a place instead, for which I may get help towards paying the rent as part of universal credit.
This got me thinking - is it possible to remain in the marital home, (its mortgaged solely to my stbx) but rent it from my stbx as technically he owns it, as he's the only one on the deeds? (Guessing he might have to change the mortgage to a buy to let type and serve me with a commercial contract) And thus be eligible to claim the rent portion of UC? (Though not sure how this would affect splitting the equity in the house as part of divorce)
Does anyone have any experience with any aspects of this?
It sounds like it sort of makes sense to me, rather than moving out only to rent off another private individual, and suddenly being eligible for £550 ish extra rent help from UC. I expect if I remained in the marital home paying rent to stbx, it could be worked out cheaper than that too.
I did phone UC helpline up and briefly ask someone. The lady seemed to say it sounded ok to remain in the home, pay rent, and potentially get help with the rent. But when I looked online I found some information about it which seemed partly confusing, possibly because housing benefit and universal credit are two separate things, both mentioned, and each with their own criteria:
"Renting from a former partner
Under universal credit rules, there's no restriction on renting from a former partner as long as it's a genuine commercial agreement.
Under housing benefit rules, you can't claim in either of the following situations:
-you used to live in the home as a couple
-you have a child together who is under 16 and lives with you
Renting a home you used to own
Under universal credit rules, there's no restriction on renting a home you used to own as long as it's a genuine commercial agreement.
You can't usually get housing benefit if you owned the property within the last 5 years unless you had to give up ownership so you could continue to live there.
Example: A relative buys your home because you can't afford the mortgage payments. You continue to live there and pay them rent. To get housing benefit you would need to show that you're renting on a commercial basis and you had to sell your home to avoid mortgage repossession."
I'd appreciate your insight / thoughts - thanks