Hi
I am getting a divorce after a 6 year marriage/9 year relationship where contributions were very unequal. I am really scared of the financial side of things and would like to hear people's experiences and set my mind at rest.
In short, my wife lied to me when I married her and pretended to be a medical student. I discovered after marrying her that she has no qualifications.
I have 2 twins (6 years old) and one stepdaughter (16).
Our relationship can be broken down into:
3 years - wife dependent on me, I supported wife + stepdaughter financially
3 years - wife was pregnant and then SAHM
3 years - my children went to nursery/school and wife did nothing. While I was working, she dissipated about £15k on an extramarital affair over 2 years, which I discovered only recently.
She has never had a full-time job and has been financially dependent on me the entire time, even before having children together. In the times when she wasn't working, I paid for university access courses for her, which never led to anything.
Under these circumstances would she normally get 50% of assets? Her contribution to the entire marriage can be reduced to a few years of SAHM and pregnancy, and I feel that the rest of the time, both before and after, she only took advantage of me. Does the law really allow somebody like this to take 50%?
Thanks!