Where is the “line in the sand” re finances being split?

[Redtartanshoes]

For example

A couple split, after 9 months they start divorce proceedings and start sorting financial situation.

After a year of living separately one party comes into some money, not a massive amount, not an inheritance but enough. Does the other party have a claim on this money.. given divorce is under way, they’ve been separated and living separately for a year or not?

Thanks

It would be argued it's a post separation asset and therefore should not form part of the "family pot", but could be taken into account in so far as it's a resource that the person can utilise for themselves when it comes to needs.

There's no black & white answer on this - it depends entirely on the circumstances of the marriage, assets, individuals and expectations.

In answer yes it could be included if needs cannot be met by excluding it
Would depend on lots of other things in terms of whether it would or not

The same thing happened to me. Six months after I divorced. My mother died. You can guess the rest as the financial settlement had not been agreed.

Another interesting one. In the 18 months after we split to going to court to sort the finances out. Not only was I liable for half her card debts on separation which is fair enough. I was also liable for half the debts she had incurred since splitting. Another £5k. Including a new dog and various holidays. Lol.