Hi - I’ve been looking at threads here. I’m now divorced and have a 50:50 shared care agreement.
I think my ex is emotionally abusive and in many ways has escalated this since I left. But sometimes (often) I think it’s all in my head - or it’s my fault.
One thing that struck me on here is when a PP said that a dad asking for 50:50 when they have done no meaningful childcare prior to divorce. Ie I went to all school performances, took days off work for child illness, ex worked away for weeks at a time, had a “bad back” and so could not even be asked to help me with minimal jobs relating to the child eg getting him from his cot, never did night feeds...
Would you say that seems like he’s using 50:50 as a form of control (knowing the kids are the apple of my eye) or maybe the divorce was his “come to Jesus” moment?
I’m so confused