I’ll try to keep this as short as possible!
My mum married my stepdad about 25 years ago, but they haven’t lived together (my mum “left” him by leaving the country for a few years!) or had any life as a married couple for about 18 years. They never formally separated. My mum has been having an affair with a married man for almost a decade.
My mum has now decided to get a divorce, and wants my SD to sell his house (which was never the matrimonial home) and give her half the proceeds plus split his pension etc.
I think she’s taking the piss - they’ve been financially independent of each other for far longer than they lived together, she’s contributed nothing (he spent money when he moved in with us (rented house) on furniture etc, and supported us financially). They both worked full time when they lived together, roughly equal earnings (neither well paid) no giving up of earnings capacity or anything. Us kids were teenagers when they married.
Surely a court wouldn’t award a 50/50 split? I know she’ll drag it all the way to court as she’ll think she’s right, just want to understand how it might pan out.