I lived in the marital home for 16 years, 2 prior to marriage and 14 years during marriage. The house belonged to him when we met and has remained in his sole name, as have other assets that he owned when we met. He and his solicitor say I’m not entitled to anything from any of the assets he owned when we met, including the marital home, as there are enough other assets from during the marriage for me to buy another house. We have 3 school aged children, which i looked after as stay at home mom, but I always kept a part time job too. When we split I moved out. He refused to give me any financial help and wanted the children 50:50. I agreed so that I could work more hours. I have now built up my salary to twice what it was. I am just about managing financially. His solicitor seems confident that I am not entitled to half of the marital home or other premarriage assets. Is this just hot air or is there some substance to that claim?