A relative is in a serious relationship with a partner who is going through divorce. The partner was a long-term stay-at-home husband who did the cooking, cleaning etc. No kids involved. Decree nisi yet to be signed. Marital home is to be put up for sale. No lawyers involved. The stay-at-home husband thinks he is not entitled to anything from house sale as the house is not in his name and he didn't pay anything toward the mortgage. Is this correct? Grateful for any insights!