Divorce legal question

[LMH1980]

I’m divorcing my husband because I discovered he is a paedophile. He has been investigated by the police but the law changed in April 2017 to make online sexual communication with a child illegal, and all of the evidence that could be found (and there was plenty) was before that date. There wasn’t enough evidence to prove that he was trying to initiate sexual contact with a child, so the case was dropped (although he will still be monitored by the police).

Fortunately we don’t have children together. We own a house together and I would really like to be able to keep it, but I can’t afford to buy him out. Do you know if I have any legal rights to getting more than 50% of the house value due to what he’s done? Or is it just 50/50 because technically he hasn’t committed a crime?

Thank you in advance.

Not much chance to do that on legal grounds. There is a clause about "the conduct of each of the parties, if that conduct is such that it would in the opinion of the court be inequitable to disregard it", but usually that relates to money things like gambling, addictions.

Keeping the house might be possible on other approaches -- does he have a big pension that might even out equity? Did you sacrifice any career to be with him?
Or, some kind of agreement that the house is sold later, with him paying for the time being.

No you don't get more money in a divorce settlement because your ex has commited a crime. Like a PP said whats the situation regarding pensions?