Hi Ladies, I have a few questions about how (if after divorce) ex-husband's gross salary gets deemed, and how it can influence any child maintenance he would have to pay.
If he works for his own limited company as a director, and clients pay his company for work he does, then I understand his gross salary is based on any salary+dividends he takes out from his company.
But he says that his gross salary could fluctuate if he takes less money out, so his company has money available to invest in new projects that he "hopes will make money". But if he had to pay CM based on his gross salary, should he be allowed to take less salary in this regard? He says to me, that's what business is for, to generate business, and that I wouldn't complain if he made a million from a new business venture. However, so many business ideas fail. I would prefer if he were pragmatic and just worked for paying clients through his company, without his company investing money on other ideas which may never turn a profit, at the expense of him taking less income. Is that reasonable or even enforceable? (And does it add any complications if he's not the sole director?)
Also, how does this scenario work - if he had a job as a regular permanent employee, and also was self employed on the side with his own projects (and lets say they made a loss) does that affect his total gross income for the year? I would guess it would lower his total gross income, just as it would increase his total gross income if his self employed projects made a profit.
I'm not a tax expert so am left somewhat confused by both scenarios :/