My husband and I have been separated and living apart for a year.
I'm trying to understand if it's possible to petition for divorce on the grounds of unreasonable behaviour given that unreasonable behaviour occurred a year ago. From what I've read I think it needs to have happened in the last 6 months. Is it too late?
In the last year I've received various aggressive, abusive and threatening messages and calls from him. Can I rely on that instead even though I'd already left the marriage at that point? If so, do I make any reference at all to his behaviour while we were still living together?
Money is tight and I don't want to waste it on an application that will be rejected.
I'm also at the same time thinking he's prone to unpredictable behaviour and I'm not sure how he will react to my allegations of unreasonable behaviour. I intend to make them as innocuous as possible.
I know in another year I can claim 2 years' separation so that's always a possibility. I've also read in the media they're thinking of introducing a no fault divorce. Does anyone know when that will come through? I'm guessing it won't be for a while.