Nc'd for this but long time MNetter
I am really hoping someone can give me an answer on this - I've been going through a very protracted divorce from a cocklodger who has been demanding money from me by pretending to be broke. There aren't any joint assets or any reason I should give him anything, he's just trying his luck.
He's buying a house and what I would like to know is whether the bank will want me to sign something to say that I don't have any claim on it despite being his spouse, so I'd be able to say that I will only sign it if he signs the consent order.
I know it's a very specific question but if anyone knows I would be really grateful!!