OK, so I know there's nothing 'quick' about 'divorce questions', really! I'll try to be succinct;
My cousin recently found out his wife has been having an affair for the past few months and she has left the marital home.
There are no children involved. His wife has only ever done random 'cash in hand' work and has not contributed financially to the running of the household. My cousin pays the mortgage, and all domestic costs.
His wife is not in the deeds to the house, but a little while ago, they drew up a legal agreement - which was notarised - agreeing she was entitled to half the proceeds of the sale of the house were they to split.
- even considering adultery and desertion, I'm guessing that legal document still entitles her to 50% of the proceeds from the sale of the house, and;
- can a spouse who is not named on the deeds force the sale of a property?
My cousin is taking legal advice, but is determined not to instigate any proceedings, but sit and wait for his wife to start making her demands.