Hello,
Can someone please give me some guidance on whether my friend is likely to be able to buy a house after her divorce if they go to court? I've heard that courts try to facilitate buying houses, but I'm not sure to what extent that is true.
I think these are the relevant facts:
- Both early 30s
- She has a decent job but works PT
- He is a high earner (£110k)
- 2 young DCs (6 and 3), she is the RP
- There's sadly not a lot of capital, roughly £50k after the FMH was sold (she moved) and he's paid off loans they took out together
Even if she gets all of the capital to use as a deposit (is this likely?), she will need a tidy sum of SM to give her the capacity to raise a mortgage on her own anywhere near where she rents now. Is the court likely to do this, even if that means it's almost certainly more than she would need/get if she carried on renting? How far off does she have to be before the court would bridge the gap, as it were?
All the advice is so vague! Thank you!