Hi,
I am asking a question for a friend who has already separated, not yet divorced.
She did not seek legal advice and her husband got a deed of seperation drawn up which they both signed. This has not been stamped by a court but was signed in the presence of his solicitor.
She was taken advantage of, left the family home with their 2 children, received 50% of equity, he stayed in the family home (not her choice).
At the time she had alot of stresses, her brother committed suicide, as well as other things.
My question is how legally binding is the deed of searation? Can she now ask for more than the 50% now she is aware she would have most likely received this and her rushed her into signing this?
Thank you