Following on from other threads about money, the ex, us potentially moving, and the whole mess with my ex, I want to pose a theoretical question.
Regardless of gender, 2 people move in together with 2 dc's. Adult No. 1 is the main earner, and their wages mostly support the family. Adult No. 2 works part-time, and cares for the dc's the rest of the time. A remortgage pays for a new kitchen & some decorating, but the rest is spent on a holiday & other things. Whilst living there, Adult No. 1 paid the interest-only mortgage payments until there was a remortgage, from which point on no contribution was made.
For whatever reason, they split up, and Adult No. 1 is the one to leave the house. On leaving the property, Adult No. 1 does not contribute to the house financially at all, and does not pay Adult No. 2 the agreed maintenance payments, nor for the 1/2 of the child care costs above what Adult No. 2 receives in Child Tax Credit.
While Adult No. 1 has the children for 50% of the time, they refuse (for 5 years) to take any responsibility for the children's travel between school and both homes, nor pays for childcare costs after school on their days of responsibility.
2 years after the split, Adult No. 2 remarries & has 2 dc's with new spouse. New spouse, being the main earner, takes over paying the mortgage interest payments, & fits a new bathroom, new flooring throughout & decorates the entire flat, including decorating & painting the communal hallway.
What I'd like to know is, does anyone think that Adult No. 1 should be paid any equity from the property when it's sold, and if so, how much - should it be 50% of the property's worth on their departure, 50% of the property's worth on it's sale, or are they owed anything at all?
Hope that's clear enough for judginess! I've tried to leave all the emotionally inciting factors out of it, but obviously I'm Adult No. 2.