DH made redundant day before JRS announced- is he eligible for 80% of wages?

[Toomuchsky]

As the title really- at first it seemed as if 80% of his wages would be covered under the Job Retention Scheme as he was on the payroll on the 1st of March... now it seems as if his ex employer needs to agree to furlough him instead of making him redundant in order to access this?

Ex employer very unlikely to withdraw the redundancy so we have no idea where he stands... any advice gratefully received.

I'm not an expert but as I understand it as he's no longer an employee he won't qualify, the employer informs the employee rather than the employee asking to be furloughed.

Not what you want to hear but that's what I've read

As far as my understanding goes it is up to the employer to decide to furlough. There’s nothing the employee can do.

Dh was made redundant today (along with many colleagues in the UK & Germany) - the company decided they were not eligible for furlough as there was no realistic chance of recovery within 90 days.

It is nightmarish.

Only if the company opt to reverse the redundancy. Employers can do this, but they don't have to, and some are being stubborn about it.

I thought I read that you had to be employed on 28 Feb to qualify

I thought I read that you had to be employed on 28 Feb to qualify

And still employed now, it means you can't have started the job after that date not that you are furloughed from a job you no longer have so anyone who has left a job since that date doesn't qualify with their ex employer

When it was announced, BBC news asked the question ‘What if you’ve already been made redundant?’ The reply from whichever expert was ‘As long as you were employed on the 28th of February, your employer can claim this on your behalf’. We almost celebrated...

The devil is in the detail, it would seem. DH’s company waited for deadlines to be met then made 50+ redundancies. There’s no way they’ll agree to commute these to furloughs.

Sorry to those also going through this.