Ok, so I know this is most likely a really silly question, and I know how the female anatomy works and so I also know it really most likely wouldn’t effect anything.
However, without making it too confusing, me (27) and DP (36) have a 6 year old DD and I am currently 7 months pregnant with DS. When I was younger I used to get bad UTI’s after sex, no one ever told me at that time that they could help to be prevented by having a wee after but I obviously know that now. Around that time I also got pregnant with DD, it was on the first cycle after taking the implant out (and not having a wee after sex). Fast forward to trying to conceive DS, it actually took almost 3 years of trying - each time we tried to conceive was always followed by a wee to stop any UTI’s, except from the month that we did eventually conceive. Which I just felt like was a huge coincidence!
So I know my theory is most likely rubbish, but I can’t help but wonder if there could be reasoning behind it? Even if it was more about a gravity thing rather than a having a wee thing!