Hi there,
I'm not sure why I haven't wondered this before, but here goes...
So, I started getting spots at around 17 years old and started on Cilest (just as contraception) when I was 18 years old. I'd had periods since I was 14 and don't recall anything strange about them. When I was about 24 my GP finally put me onto Dianette which helped my skin.
When I was 34 I married and we decided to try for DC#1. I fell PG in the first month, suffered an early MC and was PG again 6 weeks later. Had DD.
We're now TTC DC#2. I'm 38 and 3 months into TTC, no luck as yet. Now I know it's very early, but my past three cycles have been 30 Days, 32 Days and on cycle three I'm now showing signs of AF on CD26 (although not CD1 yet, expecting it on Saturday).
My periods have never really been heavy. A couple of days of very light, one day of Medium and then a couple of days of light again. I've still got the spots since coming off of the pill (horrid at 38!) and my hair seems to fall out quite a bit. Although my hairdresser says that it seems to be coming in normal cycles, nothing unusual, although she says the sides are thinning slightly.
I get +ive OPKs and then the temp rises after the suggested OV date.
When I had the MC when I was 34, they did an internal scan and couldn't see any issues with my ovaries then. I haven't got any excess hair anywhere on my face.
So would I know? Does it sound possible?
I guess I'm just looking for answers as to why I got PG so quickly before and it isn't happening quite so quickly now... 