Hi, my dd had her urine dipped today by the GP and has been prescribed antibiotics for an infection. The Dr said it tested positive for having “invisible blood” in it and it has gone to a lab for further testing. They are going to call me Friday with any further steps.
I can see there are several possible causes for this… does anyone know how likely it is to just be caused by a UTI itself? I’ve got myself in a bit of a panic as I had a large tumour removed about 5 years ago and I have a genetic mutation which makes me more predisposed to certain tumours and cancers.
We don’t know if DD has this mutation yet as she can’t be tested as too young.
Any replies appreciated x