My daughter is 8 and has worn glasses since she started turning her eye inwards aged 3.
Her prescription has been +4 (with 0 cyl) in both eyes but today has gone to +3.5 (with -0.25 cyl in both eyes).
The optician said it was neither better nor worse but she has 20/20 vision in her glasses. He said the children’s prescriptions can vary up or down each year.
In my opinion a reduction from +4 to +3.5 is an improvement?
Can anyone else explain why the optician said it was neither worse or better please?
Her eye turn is very well controlled in glasses but visible without (although less so that when she was younger).
I find it all quite confusing to get my head around, so any help to understand this would be brilliant,
Thank you.