After we had to rearrange the MMR and 4-in-1 pre-school booster for DD due to her illness, the 2nd appointment also did not occur, partly due to child’s illness yet again, but nurse also asked for Mother’s consent (my partner took child for immunisation). Is this common practice?
If so, why were we not informed that this written consent was required when the initial appointment letter and leaflet (which does not mention Mother’s written consent being required) came through the door addressed to “parent/guardian of XXX” (i.e. either of us)? Why on calling to book a more suitable timeslot, was I also not informed of this at that point? Why were we then not informed on calling to change timeslots for the 2nd time, due to child’s high temperature on the day (having rung the nurse, who said she could not give the live vaccine to a child with a high temp)?
This is THREE points of contact where we could have been told we needed to give Mother’s consent in writing, if not present! Luckily partner sneaked out of work early to take child rather than having to take a day off work but we would have been even more cross if this had been the case.
He was also told, on enquiring how the nurse would actually know who the Mother of the child was “kids look like their Mums” so this appears to be a complete nonsense, tick box exercise without any actual ID checks. A woman taking a child to be immunised could obviously be a cousin, aunt, sister, grandparent or indeed completely unrelated to the child at all. And, apparently the same is not the case for Fathers, who do not have to give their consent in writing if not present – this seems completely sexist and ridiculous to me. I am now left with the impression that the NHS simply makes it up as they go along….
Anyone else had this experience?