Hello,
I'm 39+5 with dc2. Dc1 came at 39+2. I've had some cramps, braxton sets but no signs labour is particularly imminent but I guess you never know!
My question is, am I being unreasonable not wanting DH to drink just in case it labour does start quickly? He had a beer & was about to open a bottle of wine. I said I'd rather he didn't just in case. Wondering if that's a bit ott on my part? With dc1 I had to go straight in to hospital as started bleeding heavily. So I didn't have the latent phase at home. This is probably affecting my judgement a bit just in case it happens again.
What would you do?