I'm a bit confused by that bit about incontinence.
If you read it, it says the risks are higher after instrumental delivery. But the paragraph with the 13-27% figure doesn't refer to instrumental - it just says 'incontinence after childbirth'. So is that figure all births, or instrumental ones?
Also, what do they mean? A lot of people I know have had post-birth incontinence which has lasted a day or two, or a week or so. Sometimes that's just trauma to the muscles and bruising. I don't really see that 1/4 of all women, or 1/4 women having an instrumental birth has long term anal incontinence, that seems very high.
Overall, a pretty confusing paragraph I think. It wouldn't have passed my boss when I used to draft, put it that way!!